Mark asks: What is your opinion on the legality of bribing foreign governments with taxpayer funds to have them criminally investigate your political opponents? And what is the legality of converting U.S. funds to personal use for the purpose of bribing foreign governments?
The Federal Bribery Statute prohibits public officials from taking or soliciting bribes.
__ If, . . . IF President Trump is bribing the Ukranians (with the military aid approved by Congress) to investigate Hunter Biden the statute wouldn't apply, because the Ukranians are not "public officials" as defined by the statute.
__ If, . . . IF President Trump is soliciting a bribe (the investigation of Hunter Biden) in exchange for the military aid, the important question is: Does investigation of Hunter Biden qualify as "payment of a bribe". The investigation would, in fact, be an official Government action by Ukraine - unlikely to be considered "payment of a bribe" under the statute. And if, f'rinstance, the investigation were to find no wrongdoing by Hunter Biden or Joe Biden it would not have any "value" at all.
Ref: "Trump Didn't Bribe Ukraine"
The referenced article suggests the laws regarding bribery, extortion, campaign finance, etc. do not apply and would be unlikely to result in conviction. The President is granted lots of powers regarding dealings with foreigh countries.
The article concludes that, in fact, the appropriate course of action is for Congress to impeach the President if they believe the President has committed an impeachable act.
Poor old DonDiego's opinion is he has not done so. DonDiego opines Mark is likely to disagree.