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Originally posted by: a2a3dseddie
I don't see why they couldn't do exactly that. The theoretical payback % supposedly occurs over "the long term". They do not have to adjust the paytable to give you 5.5 coins etc. on any 1 hand of VP. Let's say you do not hit a royal flush after putting $1000 through the machine. In theory, I say the casino makes $35 or so, the 8 progressives each grow by $5 and you have approximately $925 left in your bankroll. All the conditions have been satisfied.
Originally posted by: a2a3dseddie
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Originally posted by: alanleroyQuote
Originally posted by: a2a3dseddie
What's happening is this. Of that $1000 of coin in, the casino holds $35 (on average) and $40 is spread out among the 8 different progressives. That means if you never hit the royal flush, you are essentially playing a less than 92.5% average payback machine.
The only problem with that concept is that the paytables are a known commodity. The only way they could take the jackpot contribution before the hand and pay on the shorted bet is to not pay according to the published paytables, but start making fractional payments based on 96% of your bet...which they couldn't really do. So it's not like a bad beat contribution, it's more like pulling the jackpot money from the rake.
I don't see why they couldn't do exactly that. The theoretical payback % supposedly occurs over "the long term". They do not have to adjust the paytable to give you 5.5 coins etc. on any 1 hand of VP. Let's say you do not hit a royal flush after putting $1000 through the machine. In theory, I say the casino makes $35 or so, the 8 progressives each grow by $5 and you have approximately $925 left in your bankroll. All the conditions have been satisfied.
Oh ok...I thought you were saying the jackpot contribution comes off the top from the players poket like a bad beat poker jackpot....when it's really coming from the house edge. What you're saying is if you don't get a royal you're probably not going to have a very good payback percentage.