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Originally posted by: Boilerman
If PJ already understood these facts, there is no need for me to provide the link. Or is it possible that PJ didn't know this stuff?
Originally posted by: Boilerman
If PJ already understood these facts, there is no need for me to provide the link. Or is it possible that PJ didn't know this stuff?
I can care less if you provide the link or not. Its your integrity, not mine. But if you set a standard for other people to provide facts with links...and answer your questions...and then dont hold yourself to the same standard....well, you know, it makes you look like a massive hypocrite and a coward. If you are cool with that than so am I. I worry about my integrity. You can worry about yours.
For the record - My original question never said waterboarding was used exclusively in WW2. Boilerman changed my question over the course of several posts while he was running away from it. And we already know Boilerman believes waterboarding amounts to torture because he's said as much on this thread. The only question Boilerman cant bring himself to answer is whether or not torture should have been a punishable offense when it was done to our soldiers in WW2. I can care less if Boilerman answers it or not. I just want this thread to stand as an object lesson for how Boilerman holds everyone else to a different standard than he holds himself. And Its pretty friggin' amusing !