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Originally posted by: mrmarcus12LVA How is the fact that these people were not playing with their own money IRRELEVANT??? How could that POSSIBLY be irrelevant???
Originally posted by: mrmarcus12LVA How is the fact that these people were not playing with their own money IRRELEVANT??? How could that POSSIBLY be irrelevant???
Well since you asked. Because they weren't real people.
The hypothetical people in the hypothetical situation were required to play 1 million hypothetical hands in order to have a result, positive or negative. It was a set up for a math problem, like the questions you got on tests in school. You know the ones involving apples and oranges.
Money lost or money won would be identical regardless of who it belonged to.
If person A lost $50,000 during the trial, it is not necessary for that money to belong to person A for the loss to have occurred. Nor is is necessary for the money to belong to person A to be able to ask him or her how they did.
I actually play with other people's money all the time, and I can assure you that the results I experience are identical to what I would experience if the money wagered was mine, because I have it on the best of authority that machines can't tell the difference.
I just needed some hypothetical results, and backing hypothetical people to set up the equations seemed a reasonable way to do it.
Is there a difference between playing with your own money or someone else's money in real life? Well it won't effect your results, but of course it effects the emotional dynamic.
Is there a functional difference in a hypothetical analogy math question set up? Uh, no not really, it's pretty irrelevant.
Keep in mind, you did ask.