Terrible's: Not so terrible opportunity, or not?

Roadtrip, you lost me on this one. What we are taling about is a rebate on the loss, right? So all the math means nothing. If you lose $1,000 they give you $100. If you don't lose, they dont pay. If you gamble and win, there is no rebate. If you lost a thousand you get $100 back. What does this have to do with house advantage or anything else? I think you are "over thinking" this. when the casino wins a thousand dollars it has won a thousand dollars -- so it will give you 10% back so youll come back to lose more money.
I am/was looking to exploit this promo offer.

Off the top, it seems clear that betting $900 on an "even" game to win $1000 is an automatic winner.

But when you look at this as a "long term" offer and play, and factor in the true expectation, it appears to not be profitable when 100 trials are used.



Look, Im not a math guy, but explain to how a 10% rebate on any loss can be profitable no matter what game you are playing and no matter what the odds or player advantage is? A loss, is a loss. Isnt it?
Quote

Originally posted by: MoneyLA
Look, Im not a math guy, but explain to how a 10% rebate on any loss can be profitable no matter what game you are playing and no matter what the odds or player advantage is? A loss, is a loss. Isnt it?


In theory, once every 24 hours, you would "bet" 900 to possibly win 1000.

Your profit is earned when you win the bet. You collect $1000.00

You collect your profit when you lose the bet. You pay $900.00 after rebate.

If you play 10 times, and split evenly after the 10 trials......

You will have won $5,000.00 after 5 trials
You will have lost $5,000.00 after 5 trials, and than collected a total of $500.00 from rebates.
So after 10 trials, your profit would be $500, even though you did not have a new win, or loss on the game itself.

Losing LESS, because of an advantage, equates to a win, IF the exact same scenario will repeat itself often enough.

Losing $9.00 to Win $10.00 is a winner every time, if the trial will be long enough for expectation to reach "norm". There is an expectation.

But, I forgot you are not a "long term" player.











I admit, I dont have a clue as to what you are talking about. But let me lay it out for you this way:

Day one: You start with and bet $1000 and lose. You collect a $100 rebate. Your net loss is $900.

How can you possibly break even or make money from that?

Okay, we move on to day 2:

You have $100 rebate money plus you take $900 out of your savings, so you now have $1000 to bet. You bet $1000 and win $1000. Of the $1,000 you just won, you replace the $900 you took out of your savings, leaving you a $100 win on the session.

Over two days, you now have an $800 loss.

Day 3: You still have to take $900 out of your savings to have $1,000 to bet. If you have the same luck on day 3, you will replace the $900 you took out of your savings and you will have a $700 loss.

And if you have the same luck on day 4, you will have a $600 loss.
And if you have the same luck on day 5, you will have a $500 loss.

And on day 6, a $400 loss.
And on day 7, a $300 loss.
And on day 8, a $200 loss.
And on day 9, a $100 loss.

And if by some mirace you go nine days of winning youll finally break even.

Is that what you are talking about?




Quote

Originally posted by: MoneyLA
Is that what you are talking about?


I think it's more like: you are going to bet $1000 in a single bet every day for 10 days on an even odds game (No house or player advantage).

You would expect to win 5 times for + $5000.
You would expect to lose 5 times for - 5000.
You get $500 in Loss Rebate, so your expected return over 10 days is $500.

Now, we know there are no actual casino games where the house edge is 0....but that brings up a question...

Question: How small would the house advantage have to be for you to actually have the odds in your favor when the loss rebate is considered?

Answer: 5%

So, this would be an unprofitable strategy at roulette where the normal house edge is 5.26%, but a profitable one on the Craps Pass line where the normal house advantage is 1.41%. In that case, your actual advantage with the rebate is 3.59%



Quote

Originally posted by: MoneyLA
I admit, I dont have a clue as to what you are talking about. But let me lay it out for you this way:

Day one: You start with and bet $1000 and lose. You collect a $100 rebate. Your net loss is $900.

How can you possibly break even or make money from that?

Okay, we move on to day 2:

You have $100 rebate money plus you take $900 out of your savings, so you now have $1000 to bet. You bet $1000 and win $1000. Of the $1,000 you just won, you replace the $900 you took out of your savings, leaving you a $100 win on the session.

Over two days, you now have an $800 loss.

Day 3: You still have to take $900 out of your savings to have $1,000 to bet. If you have the same luck on day 3, you will replace the $900 you took out of your savings and you will have a $700 loss.

And if you have the same luck on day 4, you will have a $600 loss.
And if you have the same luck on day 5, you will have a $500 loss.

And on day 6, a $400 loss.
And on day 7, a $300 loss.
And on day 8, a $200 loss.
And on day 9, a $100 loss.

And if by some mirace you go nine days of winning youll finally break even.

Is that what you are talking about?


No, NONONONONO.

Look again. On Day 1, you lose $1000.

On day 2, you win $1000.

So, If you win on day 2, you have $2,000 in your hands. The $1,000 you bet and the $1,000 you won. Plus you have the $100 rebate. A total of $2100.00 Your NET profit at this point will be $100, because your original bankroll was (in this instance) $2,000. (The amount bet on Day 1 & Day 2)

If you continue to win, on Day 3 you will have $2,000 after your win in chips, plus Day 2 money. You will be ahead a total of $1,000, plus you will have collected a rebate for day 1 of $100. You won 2 days for a $2,000 "win", and lost on day 1 for a $1000 loss minus rebate.

On Day 4, your 3rd winning day in a row, you will have $2,000 (again your original bet plus winnings) at the cage. Your total profit will be now be 2,000 on the wager (You won 3 of 4 bets) for a total "Win" at this point of $2,000, plus the rebate for day 1 for a net profit of $2100.00

You "forgot' that when you win, you get your wager, plus the same amount as your wager as profit on that bet. When you bet $1,000, when you go to the cage your will do one of the following:

1: Collect a $100.00 loss rebate OR
2: Cash out $2,000 in chips.

IF 1, your $1000 bet becomes a $900 bet.
IF # 2, your $1,000 bet wins $1,000, for a net profit of $1,000. By coincidence, the same amount you lost on day 1.

I don't think I can explain it any better than that.



roadtrip, I have to ask this again: If you lose $1000 on the first day and get a $100 rebate, you now have only $100. Are you saying that on the second day you are turning $100 into $2,000?

If on the second day you are betting $1,000 to win $1,000 where is the other $900 coming from (since you have the $100 rebate money)??? OR are you telling me that you are starting with a $2,000 bankroll?

If you start with a 2,000 bankroll this is what happens:

Day 1. You start with a 2,000 bankroll. Bet 1,000 lose 900 after the 100 rebate.

Day 2. You start with a 1,100 bankroll. If you win 1,000 you would have 2,100 but you would only have a net profit of $100 because you started with 2,000.
Quote

Originally posted by: MoneyLA
Day 2. You start with a 1,100 bankroll. If you win 1,000 you would have 2,100 but you would only have a net profit of $100 because you started with 2,000.


There you go. $100 is a 5% return...which is exactly what's expected with this strategy (assuming an even odds game).
Sounds kind of like sports betting. Except instead of the casino getting 5% vig, the player is getting a 5% rebate.
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