Is it conceivable that slots have a different payback percentage when freeplay is used as opposed to cash. A casino in Massachusetts offered me $500 in freeplay and when I used it on multiple machines, the winning was miserable. When it ran out and I switched to cash, my wins came more frequently -- on the same machines. Since the machines now know that freeplay is being used (re-credit amount after every spin) is it possible (and/or legal) for jurisdictions to have freeplay and cash with different paybacks?
This is a tough one.
The answer to your specific question is yes. It's certainly conceivable that slots can be programmed for different payback percentages from freeplay and cash play. Also, we don't know the official policy in Massachusetts and our queries to the Gaming Commission there went unanswered.
So we asked Michael "Wizard of Odds" Shackleford for his opinion in the matter and his response was similarly equivocal. "I've never known a given machine to have different theoretical payback percentages depending on whether the player is betting freeplay or cash. That doesn't mean it's impossible and I'm not an expert on Massachusetts gaming laws or practices, but I would suspect you were just unlucky with the freeplay."
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